Jumpstart - Questions and Answers Week 1
This space is reserved for posting your "best" questions and answers
of the week. Once populated, it can be enjoyed as additional material you
can use to further and test your understanding. This week's discussion
takes place on Overleaf.
Question 1 (Matthew Hirning, incoming Fall 2018)
I'm having a little bit of trouble wrapping my head around the idea of
construction of the integers and rationals using the equivalence
classes on cross products of other number systems. Specifically, the
idea of the rationals being a subset of $\mathbb{Z} \times
\mathbb{N}$. In the lecture notes, in proving that the rationals are
countable, we use the fact that $\mathbb{Q} = (\mathbb{Z} \times
\mathbb{N})/\sim$ and also $(\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N})
/\sim \,\subset \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N}$. In my mind,
however, the elements of $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N}/\sim$
are equivalence classes which are sets themselves. So I get that
the equivalence classes partition $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N}$ but
each of the classes aren't elements of $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N}$
to begin with, right? I'd appreciate it if someone could help me frame
this construction correctly.
Answer (Fei Xiang, incoming Fall 2018)
Actually I had the same question at the first glance, then I realized
that this is just a kind of notation. For instance, $\mathbb{Z} \times
\mathbb{N} / \sim$ is used to denote rational numbers, and in rational
numbers we treat $\frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{2}{4}$ as the same number,
so they are partitioned into "one number" (or "one class", if you
wish), and all the equivalence classes are sets of infinitely many
numbers.
Question 2 (Daniel Morrison, incoming Fall 2018)
This is a bit of a broad question, but I was intrigued by the
construction of the reals in Lecture 0 and I wanted to know more about
it. Specifically, I can see how defining reals in terms of Cauchy
sequences of rationals might lead to $\mathbb{R}$ being complete, but
I feel like there is a bit of a gap between these results since we
need Cauchy sequences of real numbers (not just rational numbers) to
converge. However in trying to close that gap I ran into some issues
like how would we define an order on $\mathbb{R}$ using the Cauchy
sequences, defining a distance function on $\mathbb{R}$, and even then
a sequence of real numbers would be a sequence of sequences of
rational numbers which is very confusing. Can anyone point me in the
right direction for constructing these necesary parts and give me an
idea how to think about it?
Answer
In your question you are really identifying the main issues that need
to be sorted out to "complete" the construction only sketched in the
lecture.
(i) Define an order on $ \mathbb{R}$. It is enough to define
what is meant by $x>0$ since $x<y$ can then be defined by the
validity of $y-x>0$. We define $x>0$ by the validity of
$$
x\neq 0 \text{ and } \exists\: N\in \mathbb{N} \text{ s.t. } \forall\:
(x_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}\in x\:\exists\: M\in \mathbb{N} \text{ and }
x_n>\frac{1}{N}\:\forall\: n\geq M.
$$
(ii) Define a distance on $ \mathbb{R}$. To do this, we only
need to find an absolute value in $ \mathbb{R}$ that extends that of $
\mathbb{Q}$. We do this by setting
$$
|x|=\big | [(x_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}]\big |:=\big[(|x_n|)_{n\in
\mathbb{N}}\big].
$$
You should verify that this definition makes sense (i.e. that
$(|x_n|)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence), is independent of
the choice of representative, and delivers a function which enjoys the
properties of an absolute value (non-negativity, positive homogeneity,
and triangle inequality).
(iii) Show density of $ \mathbb{Q}$ and completeness of
$\mathbb{R}$. Show first that, given $x\in \mathbb{R}$ and $N\in
\mathbb{N}$, there is $q\in \mathbb{Q}$ such that
$$
|x-q|<\frac{1}{N}.
$$
Remember that $ \mathbb{Q}\ni q\equiv \big[ (q,q,\dots)\big]$. Then
use this to generate a Cauchy sequence of rationals, starting with a
Cauchy sequence of reals, that stays "close'' to the latter. Finally
show that, in fact, the sequence of reals converges to this Cauchy
sequence of rationals.
Question 3 (Greg Zitelli, Course's Teaching Assistant 2018)
For every $n \in \mathbb{N}$, is it true that $\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt{n-1}$
is irrational?
Answer (Daniel Morrison, incoming Fall 2018)
Yes. Suppose there was some $n\in\mathbb{N}$ so that
$\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt{n-1}$ is rational. Then
$$
\bigl(\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt{n-1}\bigr)\bigl(\sqrt{n+1}-\sqrt{n-1}\bigr) = (n+1)-(n-1) = 2,
$$
so $\sqrt{n+1}-\sqrt{n-1}$ must also be rational. It then follows that
both $\sqrt{n+1}$ and $\sqrt{n-1}$ are rational. But if the square
root of a natural number is rational, it must be an integer since if
$\sqrt{m}=p/q$ with $p,q$ relatively prime then
$p^2/q^2\in\mathbb{N}$. Hence $q^2|p^2$ and so $q=1$ and $\sqrt{m}$ is
an integer. Thus $\sqrt{n+1}=a$ and $\sqrt{n-1}=b$ for some
$a,b\in\mathbb{N}$. But there are no solutions to $(a+b)(a-b)=2$ in
$\mathbb{N}$ so by contradiction $\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt{n-1}$ is irrational
for every $n\in\mathbb{N}$.